What is the logic of this paragraph in relation to the rest of the chapter? How does this view differ from Rome? How do we balance this with what the Bible says elsewhere about baptism “saving” you? If baptism a means of grace what this paragraph say about the conferring of that grace? What pastoral help do we have here? Tune in as Nathan, Shawn, Joel, and Kyle discuss WCF 28.6:
The efficacy of baptism is not tied to that moment of time wherein it is administered; yet, notwithstanding, by the right use of this ordinance the grace promised is not only offered, but really exhibited and conferred by the Holy Ghost, to such (whether of age or infants) as that grace belongeth unto, according to the counsel of God’s own will, in his appointed time.
The Jerusalem Chamber 